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Exam Code: HP2-K10
Exam Name: HP (Supporting MSL5000/6000 Series Libraries)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The MSL6000 Series Tape Library has an Ultra3 SCSI interface. What is the standard bandwidth?
A. 40 MB/s
B. 80 MB/s
C. 160 MB/s
D. 320 MB/s
Answer: C

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NO.2 A tape library is equipped with a low-voltage differential (LVD) SCSI interface. What happens if this
library is connected to a high-voltage differential (HVD) host bus adapter?
A. The SCSI bus becomes inoperative.
B. The SCSI interface changes to HVD mode.
C. The speed of the SCSI bus degrades to LVD.
D. The host bus adapter switches to LVD mode.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why would you use a Network Storage Router E1200-160 instead of an E1200?
A. if you use Ultrium 960 drives
B. if you need more SCSI ports
C. if you need more Fibre Channel ports
D. if you need high-voltage differential instead of low-voltage differential SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a characteristic of SCSI bus termination?
A. optional
B. only required for low-voltage differential SCSI
C. required with one terminator for each device on the bus
D. required with two terminators, one at each end of the bus
Answer: D

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NO.5 What happens to the devices when a high-voltage differential tape device is connectedwith a
single-ended host bus adapter (HBA)?
A. They do not function together and you may damage them.
B. They do not function together unless you use active termination.
C. They function correctly after you set up the compatibility mode in the HBA.
D. They function correctly if you set up unique SCSI IDs and proper termination.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Identify the correct statement about logical unit numbers (LUNs) in SCSI.
A. LUNs are virtual devices used for administration.
B. LUNs are used to address physical or logical devices behind a SCSI ID.
C. The number of LUNs available on a SCSI bus depends on the signaling type of the bus.
D. LUNs are not used to address devices when doing a SCSI I/O over a Fibre Channel fabric.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which reference document is recommended to locate the most recent supported configurations?
A. User Guide
B. QuickSpecs
C. Installation Guide
D. EBS Compatibility Matrix
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is an architectural requirement for adaptive tape speed (ATS)?
A. cache buffer
B. stepper motor
C. start/stop mode
D. variable head rotation
Answer: A

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NO.9 .What is the maximum bandwidth of a wide Ultra 2 SCSI bus with 16 possible SCSI IDs?
A. 160 MB/s and an LVD interface
B. 80 MB/s and an SE or LVD interface
C. 40 MB/s and an SE or HVD (high-voltage differential) interface
D. 20 MB/s and an SE (single ended) or LVD (low-voltage differential) interface
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the maximum bandwidth of a wide Ultra SCSI bus with 16 possible SCSI IDs?
A. 160 MB/s and an LVD interface
B. 80 MB/s and an SE or LVD interface
C. 40 MB/s and an SE or HVD (high-voltage differential) interface
D. 20 MB/s and an SE (single ended) or LVD (low-voltage differential) interface
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y25
Exam Name: HP (Building HP ProCurve Enterprise Mobility Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are setting up an RF Manager solution for a university that is implementing a new wireless network.
Hackers have tried to compromise the wired network, and you expect attacks to increase exponentially
when the university implements its wireless network. When you configure the intrusion protection setting,
you want to ensure that the sensors can protect against threats on three channels at a time. Which
intrusion protection setting would you select?
A. Block
B. Disrupt
C. Interrupt
D. Disconnect
Answer: C

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NO.2 Wireless stations in a VSC run voice applications (among other applications). You want voice traffic to
be prioritized as it travels from the AP to the wireless stations. What is needed to meet this requirement?
(select two.)
A. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to VSC very High.
B. WMM adevertising must be enabled on the VSC.
C. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to IP QoS.
D. An IP QoS profile must select the voice traffic and set it to Very High.
E. The wireless stations must support WMM.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 You are implementing a public access solution on the MSM Controller because your company wants to
grant visitors access to the internet. The company has only two VLANs: VLANs 1 for users and VLAN 2
for servers. VLAN 2 also includes the internet connection. You connect the MSM APs and the MSM
Controller's LAN port to VLAN 1 and the controller's internet port to VLAN
2. You must protect the company's workstations on VLAN 1 from unauthorized access by
unauthenticated guests. What must you do no the MSM Controller?
A. Create an unauthenticated user ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the controller.
B. On the VSC for guests, enable the option that terminates WPA at the controller.
C. On the VSC for guests, enable the wireless security filter that limits wireless traffic to the controller.
D. Add an entry to the default site ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the
controller.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which devices provide the data integrity and privacy that create a trusted network infrastructure in an
Enterprise Mobility Solution?
A. RF Manager and sensors.
B. RF Planner and sensors
C. MSM Controllers and APs
D. MSM Controllers and identity Driven Manager (IDM)
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN plicy?
A. RF Manager might classify your own APs as Rogue APs because their transmit power is too high and
take action against them.
B. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect harmful devices? Locations, instead of drawing on
network detectors' findings. This might make the prediction less accurate.
C. RF Manager might classify legitimate APs owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs and take action
against them.
D. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company is using 802.1X authentication with dynamic VLANs on its wired network. The company has
three user groups that are assigned to VLANs 10, 20, and 30. You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility
Solution with an MSM760 Access Controller and 50 APs. On the MSM
Controller, you have configured a VSC that enforces 802.1X authentication. How do you continue to
create a consistent experience for users on wired and wireless connections?
A. Bind the VSC to the APs' group with VLANs 10, 20, and 30 as egress VLANs.
B. Enable the dynamic VLANs option in the VSC, and bind the VSC to the APs' group.
C. Configure VLANs 10, 20 and 30 on the MSM APs' bridge ports, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for
each VLAN.
D. Bind the VSC to the APs' group, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for VLANs 10, 20, and 30.
Answer: D

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NO.7 During RF planning, why is it necessary to evaluate the types of applications your wireless network
must support?
A. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
encryption.
B. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
wireless threat management.
C. Some applications are more popular, and only a certain number of users are supported by each
wireless AP radio.
D. Some applications require more bandwidth, and each wireless AP radio has a certain amount of
bandwidth.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
A wireless user associates with a VSC. The following settings are configured on the VSC:
Use Ser ice Controller for Authentication = Enabled
Use Ser ice Controller for Access control = Enabled
VSC ingress mapping=SSID
Client data tunnel=Disabled
Wireless security filters=Disabled
HTML authentication= Enabled
VSC egress mapping=Default
In the VSC binding for the group to which the users' AP belong, there is no egress VLAN setting.
The network topology is shown in the exhibit. Which resources are available to the guest before the guest
logs in and becomes an authorized user?
A. resources available on the public Internet.
B. resources available on the public internet and in VLAN 1.
C. resources in VLANs 1, 2, and 3.
D. resources in VLAN 1 only.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You must implement access control for your wireless users on a solution-wide level. You have decided
on the access control strategy recommended for guests and have already begun to customize public
access settings. Which option must you select in the VSC for these users?
A. use Service Controller for: Access control (centralized access control)
B. Client data tunnel
C. 802.1X authentication
D. wireless protection set to WPA
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility Solution for a company that is concerned about
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they connect wirelessly. To deal with this issue, you are planning to deploy IDM and Windows Access
Protection (NAP) as an endpoint integrity solution. Which method of implementing access control on the
VSC provides the best option to meet this requirement?
A. Public access control.
B. Centralized access control.
C. 802.1X-based access control.
D. Health-based access control.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: Hp2-E21
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Commercial Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which HP server should you recommend to a budget-conscious SMB customer who requires a
tower platform for a single-function application?
A. HP ProLiant BL series
B. HP ProLiant ML1xx series
C. HP ProLiant ML3xx series
D. HP ProLiant ML5xx series
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which phrase most accurately describes SMB customers?
A. IT services typically drive their business operations.
B. The main focus is on their business and not their IT infrastructure.
C. IT infrastructure typically consists of multiple vendors and platforms.
D. They are very concerned with business continuity and disaster-recovery solute
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which services elements are targeted for commercial or SMB customers?
A. Critical Services
B. Referral Services
C. Premium Services
D. Basic Support Services
Answer: D

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NO.4 During stage 2 of the sales cycle, identify the opportunity, what should be done?
A. create a reference story
B. discover customer business challenges
C. confirm the customer's budget and commitment
D. prepare the terms and conditions of the proposal
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the SMB customer?
A. SMB customers typically deploy Integrity servers
B. More than 80% of SMB customers have external RAID storage solutions.
C. SMB customers typically deploy X86 systems running Windows applications.
D. The majority of SMB customers use Linux and UNIX clustered operating systems.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The finger print reader is an example of which type of feature?
A. security
B. reliability
C. performance
D. HP exclusive product differentiator
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which type of sales process typically focuses on pricing and delivery?
A. solution sale
B. lifecycle sale
C. consultative sale
D. transactional sale
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about a consultative sale?
A. The sales process is based on adding value
B. The customer has a predefined product and solution they want.
C. The sales process focuses on commodity elements of the lowest price.
D. The sales process focuses on the fastest shipment and arrival date of product
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Hp2-E30
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Sales Consultant (2010))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which statement best describes blade server evolution?
A. Blade servers evolved from storage hardware and services.
B. Blade servers evolved from the creation of virtualization software.
C. Blade servers evolved from the consolidation of traditional rack mount servers.
D. Blade servers evolved from mainframe technology.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the key differentiators for HP BladeSystem when compared to competitive offerings?
A. Form factors, Thermal Logic technology and Enclosure technology
B. Virtual Connect technology, Thermal Logic Technology and Insight Control
C. Virtual Connect technology, MTBF ratings and low purchase price
D. Intel processors, Enclosure technology and Virtual Connect technology
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which advanced infrastructure management software allows customers to analyze and optimize
physical and virtual resources, by decreasing virtualization complexity and increasing infrastructure
agility?
A. Thermal Logic
B. Virtual Connect
C. HP Insight Dynamics
D. Dynamic Power Capping
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP BladeSystem enclosure is appropriate for branch offices or smaller deployments?
A. c3000
B. c7000
C. BladeCenter QS22
D. Rack 10000 Series
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement best describes current data center infrastructures
A. Costs remain steady as IT administrators can now fit more blades into current infrastructures.
B. Energy costs are rising as it becomes more difficult to adequately power and cool the data center.
C. Resource allocation has become simpler because data centers are creating silos of compute
resources.
D. Routine administrative tasks take less time because data centers are often centrally located on one
campus.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-H11
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Thin Clients)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which benefit is specific to the Academic Edition of the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution? (Select two.)
A. Intel Xeon based host PC
B. Ethernet connection from the access devices to the host PC for greater distance
C. licensing support through Microsoft Volume Licensing
D. support for up to 24 access devices
E. support for access devices running Windows 7 only
Answer: B, E

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NO.2 Which Intel processor type should you recommend for an HP MultiSeat host PC that supports six to ten
access devices, each running high-processing-demand applications such as multimedia?
A. Core 2 Duo
B. Core 2 Quad
C. Core i7
D. Xeon processor 5600 series
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which type of key sales information for the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution do these features
represent?
Reduces environmental impact
Has the potential to double computing seats with the same budget
Requires no special IT knowledge
Contains software completely licensed and supported by HP
A. competitive advantages
B. silver bullets
C. opportunity indicators
D. key features
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-T15
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
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Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which Smart Array features are offered in a P410i when using a Cache option, but not offered in a
P410i model without cache? (Select two.)
A. Offline Mirror Splitting
B. Online Drive Flash
C. Drive Erase
D. Disk Write Cache
E. Volume Extension
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 How many BladeSystem p-Class enclosures are supported by a single Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which RAID levels are supported by the integrated Smart Array E200i Controller without a cache
module in an SB600c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID6 (ADG)
D. RAID 5
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 A customer wants to install a new blade into an existing c7000 solution. What should be checked
before installation to verify compatibility?
A. processor speed
B. port mapping
C. jLO settings
D. disk mapping
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which management functionality is performed by the c7000 Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. providing dynamic resource allocation for server blades
B. managing shared power and cooling for the enclosure
C. activating Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
D. providing license management through the command line interface (CLI)
E. detecting any mismatches between mezzanine cards and interconnects
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Which blades support the Intel 5500 Chipset processor? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant BL460cG6
B. HP ProLiant BL490cG6
C. HP ProLiant BL680cG5
D. HP ProLiant BL685cG6
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which action can you initiate from the Insight Display?
A. Determine the IP address of the Virtual Connect Manager
B. Change the IP address of the server OS.
C. Power down a blade server
D. Upgrade Onboard Administrator firmware.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Where does the System Management Homepage obtain its data?
A. Web-enabled agents
B. BIOS
C. http://www.hp.com
D. Product Bulletin
Answer: A

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NO.9 What will mixing RDIMMs and UDIMMs in an HP server blade do?
A. halt the server blade during BIOS initialization
B. have no effect; the server blade is booting up normally
C. have no effect as long as the types are not mixed within pairs
D. cause a boot loop
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can storage be presented to a server from the StorageWorks All-ln-One SB600c Storage
Blade? (Select two.)
A. using iSCSI
B. using HTTPS
C. using InfiniBand
D. using NFS
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Your customer wants to mount a standard media image located on a shared network location from
the company's blade server Which iLO 2 Standard Blade Edition feature allows this?
A. key-activated floppy and CD virtual media
B. virtual power button
C. virtual media
D. remote console
Answer: C

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NO.12 What can be set with the Insight Display of the c7000 enclosure? (Select three.)
A. power mode
B. role base user account and privileges
C. power and cooling management mode and monitoring
D. enclosure and rack name
E. power savings
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.13 A full-height server blade has a quad port network mezzanine card Installed in slot 3. Where do
you need to install the GbE2c Switches to make use 1 of all four ports?
A. Bays 3 and 4 only
B. Bays 7 and 8 only
C. Bays 5, 6, 7 and 8
D. Bays 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: D

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NO.14 You have activated the UID (Unique Identifier) light on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure in
a remote data center. Which color is the UID?
A. green
B. amber
C. black
D. blue
E. red
Answer: D

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NO.15 How high in standard units (Us) is a c3000 enclosure?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12
Answer: B

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NO.16 HP offers two types of mezzanine cards. Which statement is correct?
A. Type I mezzanine cards will fit into type I and type II slots.
B. Type II mezzanine cards can fit into typeI or type II slots.
C. Type I mezzanine cards outperform type II slots.
D. Type II mezzanine cards will only support older SCSI devices.
Answer: A

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NO.17 HOTSPOT
Click on the SD card slot in a BL460c G6.
Answer:

NO.18 Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. white
B. black
C. blue
D. brown
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is used to set the initial enclosure IP addressing on a c7000 enclosure?
(Select two.)
A. Insight Display
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Systems Insight Manager
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 What is the maximum number of BL685c G6 Server Blades that can be directly attached to an HP
Storage Worksheet iifA

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Exam Code: HP2-Z04
Exam Name: HP (Building HP ProCurve Campus LANs)
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Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You have configured values for the Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID, and Tunnel-Medium-Type
attributes in a policy on your RADIUS server. Which dynamic setting(s)
have you created?
A. dynamic ACL only
B. dynamic VLAN only
C. dynamic rate limit only
D. dynamic rate limit and dynamic VLAN
E. dynamic ACL and dynamic VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does Secure Shell (SSH) use to conceal the content management traffic from eavesdroppers?
A. asymmetric cryptography
B. symmetric cryptography
C. message authentication codes
D. username and password authentication
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which value composes the unique byte of a Master VRRP router's MAC address?
A. the default priority of the original VRRP Master
B. a random number between 1-255 that is generated when the VRRP instance is created
C. the Master's loopback address
D. the ID associated with the VRRP instance
Answer: D

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NO.4 What must be enabled on a Cisco switch for Cisco PVST+ to interoperate with ProCurve devices
running 802.1s (MSTP) spanning tree?
A. VLAN 4096
B. the native VLAN
C. PVST+ compatibility mode
D. 802.1s (MSTP) compatibility mode
E. VLAN 1
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which type of OSPF Link State Advertisement (LSA) does an Area Border Router (ABR) send into one
area to advertise a summary route to all networks in another area?
A. type 5
B. type 3
C. type 2
D. type 1
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your network includes only one DHCP server, which is in a different VLAN from many DHCP clients.
Which statement is true about configuring a DHCP Helper address on the DHCP clients' VLANs?
A. The DHCP Helper address converts the VLAN tag of the client's broadcasts to allow the DHCP server
to assign the correct unicast IP address.
B. The DHCP Helper address is not required because switches automatically forward DHCP requests to
the appropriate DHCP servers.
C. The DHCP Helper includes a list of addresses that the switch assigns to clients in unicast DHCP
replies.
D. For the DHCP clients' broadcasts to reach the server, the switch must translate them to traffic directed
to the DHCP helper address.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You want a ProCurve switch to send SNMPv2c traps to a management station. What must you
configure? (Select two.)
A. the correct SNMP encryption password
B. the IP address of the host that will receive the traps
C. SNMP Read/Write access to the host that will receive the traps
D. the correct SNMP username and password for the host that will receive the traps
E. the SNMP community string of the host that will receive the traps
Answer: B, E

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NO.8 You have created a port trunk consisting of three links between two HP ProCurve switches: Switch A
and Switch B. When Device C sends a packet to Server D, Switch A forwards the packet over link 1 in the
trunk. Which statement is true about how Switch A will transmit the next packet between Device C and
Server D?
A. It will send the packet over link 1 unless link 1 has reached the congestion threshold.
B. It will send the packet over link 2 or link 3.
C. It will send the packet over any of the three links, selected randomly.
D. It will send the packet over link 1.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You want to establish a WAN connection using an X.21 cable. What is the correct Layer 2 protocol to
configure on your router to support this connection?
A. ATM
B. Frame Relay
C. HDLC
D. PPPoE
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are running Secure Shell (SSH) on your HP ProCurve switch, and you want to authenticate the
device that you use to manage the switch using the SSH-Client-Public-Key method. What must you do?
A. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the client private key to the switch.
B. Generate a public and private key pair on the switch.
C. Copy the switch public and private key pair to the client.
D. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the public key to the switch.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is achieved by a shared secret, configured on both the RADIUS server and the RADIUS client?
(Select two.)
A. It defines the authentication domain.
B. It authenticates the server and client to each other.
C. It sets the password for users allowed to connect to the network.
D. It sets the password for switch managers.
E. It verifies the integrity of RADIUS messages. placed in blocking
Answer: B, E

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NO.12 .An IT manager wants to form a dynamic LACP trunk between two switches to increase bandwidth in
the network. What are valid configurations for achieving this goal? (Select two.)
A. Switch 1 ports = LACP Passive; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
B. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Active
C. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
D. Switch 1 ports = HP Trunking; Switch 2 ports = LACP trunking
E. Switch 1 ports = 100FDx; Switch 2 ports = 1000FDx
Answer: B, C

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NO.13 A multicast packet is received on a switch in a VLAN that does not have IGMP enabled. How is the
packet handled?
A. The packet is flooded to a subset of the hosts on the VLAN, based on the source IP address of the
multicast stream.
B. The packet is transmitted on all ports that belong to the VLAN.
C. Because the routing interface for the VLAN has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to
join the multicast, the packet is dropped.
D. Because the switch has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to join the multicast, the
packet is flooded to all Rendezvous Points for proper routing.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of untagged VLAN assignments on each port of an HP ProCurve Switch
3500yl-24PoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. the number set with the max-VLANs command
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are attempting to estimate the range of your wireless access point's signal. Which factors affect
the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) of its radio?
A. data rate and signal attenuation
B. cable loss and antenna gain
C. traffic patterns and antenna gain
D. transmit power and signal attenuation
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which security technology in Internet Key Exchange (IKE) allows endpoints to generate secure keys
without agreeing to them beforehand?
A. AES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. RSA
D. HMAC
Answer: B

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NO.17 A router has several interfaces that are all in the same OSPF areas. You want the router to receive a
default route and summary routes but no routes that have been redistributed into OSPF from another
routing method. How should you define the router's OSPF area?
A. Stub Area
B. Not-So-Stubby Area
C. transit Area
D. type 3 area
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement is correct about security technology implemented in SNMPv3?
A. SNMPv3 applies authentication keys and algorithms to management traffic so that the recipient can
verify that packets have not been tampered with.
B. SNMPv3 utilizes symmetric cryptography, which uses a pair of mathematically related hash functions
to encrypt and decrypt messages.
C. SNMPv3 uses hash functions and encryption algorithms such as MD5 and SHA-1.
D. When using the AES algorithm with SNMPv3, it produces a larger message digest than the DES
algorithm.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which parameter should you configure on an Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) to allow it to
produce special Link State Advertisements (LSAs) that advertise external routes in a stub area?
A. Not-So-Stubby Area
B. Static Route Mapping
C. Stub Area
D. Backup Designated Router
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your company's security policies require managers to use HTTPS to access Web browser interfaces
of infrastructure products. Which tasks must you complete on each product? (Select two.)
A. Generate a self-signed server certificate for HTTPS.
B. Install a server certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
C. Install a client certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
D. Generate a certificate revocation list for HTTPS.
E. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
Answer: A, B

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NO.1 What are possible causes of the LaserJet 9000 printing blank pages? Select TWO.
A.no developing bias
B.defective fuser
C.no cartridge ground
D.defective laser shutter
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 What is the maximum stack height in the accumulator of the 3000-sheet stapler/stacker?
A.2.5 mm
B.no limit
C.5.5 mm
D.5.5 cm
Answer: C

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NO.3 What action should be taken when critical error messages are encountered on the control panel ¯
A.perform a cold reset
B.print an event log
C.cycle printer power
D.perform an engine test
Answer: C

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NO.4 If the Jetdirect functionality fails for the HP LaserJet 9050dn, you must ________ .
A.replace the Jetdirect ElO device
B.cycle power to reset the device
C.replace the formatter
D.download new firmware
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are troubleshooting a media-handling problem after a 66.xy.zz error code appears on the control
panel.What does the 66 indicate?
A.operating error
B.paper path jam
C.hardware malfunction
D.device type
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP3-C02
Exam Name: HP (HP Color Laserjet CP6015 and CM6040 MFP Service Qualification)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of staple jobs accepted, within one job request, by the Stapler/Stacker
Output Bins?
A. 10
B. 30
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which CP6015 Series printer includes a hard drive?
A. CP6015x
B. CP6015xh
C. CP6015dn
D. CP6015de
Answer: B

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NO.3 What advantages do the CM6040f/30f bundles have over the base models.? (Select two.)
A. The f bundles have more RAM.
B. The f bundles have an analog fax.
C. The f bundles have a color display.
D. The f bundles have two extra input trays.
Answer: B, E

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Exam Code: HP0-J38
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the expected growth rate of the Storage Media Operations database?
A.100MB for every 2000 tapes
B.100MB for every 10,000 tapes
C.1GB for every 1000 tapes
D.2GB for every 10,000 tapes
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are implementing an ESL E-Series tape library. What is the maximum number of drives supported
per drive cluster?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the difference between a normal full backup and a copy full backup?
A.A normal full backup backs up files and resets the archive bit. A copy full backup does not.
B.A normal full backup always uses the last access time to determine if the file needs backing up. The
copy full backup uses the archive bit.
C.A copy full backup is a replica of a normal full backup.
D.A copy full backup is image based. A normal full backup is file based.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are proposing a disaster tolerant solution to your customer. Which factors should you consider
when estimating the cost of data loss? (Select three.)
A.size of the backup and restore window
B.type of backup, image based or file based
C.cost of downtime while recreating data
D.ability to recreate the data
E.effect on customer and supplier satisfaction
F.average amount of lost data
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.5 To protect against data loss, companies must develop and follow backup and restore
strategies. Which questions can be used to determine the approporiate backup strategy?
(Select three.)
A.What is the size of the restore window?
B.Where is the data located?
C.Which type of tape device is used?
D.Is full or partial backup required?
E.Which type of storage is used?
F.Is the data image based or file based?
Answer: A, D, F

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Exam Code: HP2-T19
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Solutions [2010])
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 154 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of c3000 enclosures that can be installed in a 42U rack?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which interconnect can be used with the Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) capability of the new G7
Series of c-Class blades?
A. HP 1/10Gb-F Virtual Connect Ethernet
B. HP Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet
C. Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D. HP ProCurve 6120G/XG interconnect
E. HP Virtual Connect FC Module
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which utilities can be used to scan for malware on a Windows server? (Choose two.)
A. Snort
B. Ad-Aware
C. Postfix
D. Microsoft Network Monitor
E. Spybot
Answer: B, E

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Place the preventive measure steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.5 Which feature is supported by the zx2 chipset in the Integrity BL860c?
A. hot spare and hot-plug of memory DIMMs
B. up to 512GB of memory (not fully buffered DIMMs)
C. memory DIMM error correction (chip sparing)
D. 512-bit, 800MHz (800 MT/s, 1600MHz data rate) memory bus
Answer: C

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
Click on the component that provides remote enclosure management in c-Class enclosures.
Answer:

NO.7 HOTSPOT
Click on the SB600c All-in-One Storage Blade in the graphic.
Answer:

NO.8 Which HP BladeSystem component is used for power allocation and control for all blades and
interconnects?
A. Rack and Power Manager
B. Power Manager
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Insight Display
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which HP c-Class server blades take up two c3000 enclosure server bays? (Select two.)
A. BL860c
B. BL870c
C. BL685 G7
D. BL490 G6
E. BL2x220c G6
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 Which feature of the BL465c G7 allows the server to accommodate 16 DIMM slots and retain the
half-height form factor?
A. PCIe Gen 2 x8 mezzanine expansion slots
B. AMD SR5690/SP5100 chipset
C. Hot Plug Drive Drawer
D. Smart Array P410i Controller with 1GB FBWC
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which full-height device bays are in Zone 3 of a c7000 enclosure?
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 5 and 6
D. 7 and 8
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which processor type is used with the HP BL460c G6 Server Blade?
A. Dual-Core Intel Itanium Processor
B. Intel Xeon Processor
C. HP PA-RISC FSB, double data rate
D. AMD Opteron processor
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the maximum number of SB1760c Tape Blades that can be installed in a c7000 blade
enclosure?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: B

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NO.14 When should a performance baseline be captured?
A. after the initial installation of the equipment, during normal daily operation
B. after the initial installation of the equipment, during peak operating conditions
C. before and after each step of the initial installation of the equipment
D. three times a day during the first week following the initial installation of the equipment
Answer: A

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
Place each server blade on its recommended application type.
Answer:

NO.16 What happens when you turn the enclosure UID to "On" on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure?
A. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
B. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
C. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
D. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which connectivity type is supported to access Systems Management Architecture for the Server
Hardware (SMASH) Command Line Protocol? (Select three.)
A. serial
B. ftp
C. rcp
D. telnet
E. ssl
F. ssh
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.18 How does a c7000 enclosure retain air handling integrity when a server blade is removed?
A. The enclosure design uses blank panels to prevent air loss.
B. A blanking panel causes the air flow to reverse, allowing warmer air to escape.
C. The enclosure uses a self-closing door to prevent air loss.
D. The fans increase in revolutions per minute to increase air volume.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is needed to connect a Windows-based laptop to the c7000 or c3000 enclosure service port and
successfully communicate with the Onboard Administrator?
A. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a null modem cable
B. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a standard CAT5 patch cable
C. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a CAT5 crossover
cable
D. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a standard CAT5
patch cable
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which HP blade comes with a license for Microsoft Cluster Server (MSCS)?
A. BL490c
B. BL870c
C. X3800sb
D. xw2x220c
Answer: C

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