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Exam Code: HH0-220
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Certified Implmenter-Modular)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When implementing host access security for a LUN in a Hitachi Unified Storage system, to what is the
host WWN applied?
A. Host Group
B. Storage Group
C. Domain Group
D. Link Group
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two effects of persistent binding? (Choose two.)
A. Persistent binding can speed up path failover.
B. Persistent binding guarantees Command Device security.
C. Persistent binding can speed up the server boot process.
D. Persistent binding guarantees that target assignments are preserved between reboots.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A customer has identified a performance bottleneck with Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
production host LUNs. The performance improvement plan includes a change to the Hitachi Dynamic Link
Manager load balancing algorithm which is currently set to Round Robin. Which setting would you
recommend?
A. Least I/Os
B. Least blocks
C. Extended Round Robin
D. Extended Least blocks
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer will be implementing a Hitachi Unified Storage File Module two-node NAS cluster with one
SMU. How many power connections are necessary?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have just allocated four 3TB LUNs from a Hitachi Unified Storage System to a set of ESX 4.x
servers. The VMware administrator can see volumes that are assigned to the servers from an older
storage array, but not the volumes you have just allocated. What is the most likely cause?
A. The FC switch ports need to be disabled/enabled to force the HBAs to re-login to the fabric.
B. This a newer storage array with an older version of ESX so the HBA drivers need to be updated.
C. ESX 4.x servers cannot recognize volumes that are 2TB or larger.
D. The rescan function in VMware is not working, so both servers need to be rebooted.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are upgrading a Hitachi Unified Storage (HUS) system with the File Module option. Which
combination is required to support this upgrade?
A. FC connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS F software bundle
B. 10GbE connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS M software bundle
C. FCoE connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS F software bundle
D. FC connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS N software bundle
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are implementing a Hitachi Unified Storage File Module cluster with a single SMU. How do you run
the smu-config script?
A. Connect an Ethernet cable and login as supervisor.
B. Connect a serial null-modem cable and login as supervisor.
C. Connect an Ethernet cable and login as root.
D. Connect a serial null-modem cable and login as root.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to start using ShadowImage on several of their existing Hitachi Unified Storage
systems. They would like a solution to centrally configure their Point-in-Time copies. Which product would
you recommend?
A. Hitachi Dynamic Replicator
B. Hitachi Universal Replicator
C. Business Continuity Manager
D. Hitachi Replication Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 How should the Hitachi Unified Storage systems dual power supplies be connected?
A. by FS6 circuits breakers
B. only one should be connected, the other being standby
C. by adjacent sockets on a single power distribution unit
D. by two independent and appropriately rated power distribution units
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are three characteristics of the Hitachi Unified Storage systems active/active controller design?
(Choose three.)
A. SNM2 GUI is used to turn on active/active controller processing.
B. Workload is automatically balanced between controllers.
C. When creating a LUN the default controller must be selected.
D. The processor of Ctlr0 can access the Fibre Channel (FC) ports of Ctrl1.
E. Non disruptive firmware upgrade is possible even if a host is connected by only one path.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.11 What are two ways to register a new Hitachi Unified Storage system with Storage Navigator Modular 2?
(Choose two.)
A. SNM2 can scan a range of IP addresses.
B. SNM2 can import a .CSV file containing IP addresses.
C. The controller IP addresses can be entered into SNM2.
D. SNM2 automatically detects connected arrays using UDP broadcasts.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which two operations can be performed with the Web utility on a Hitachi Unified Storage system?
(Choose two.)
A. Take a simple trace.
B. Install license keys.
C. Perform an online microcode update.
D. Perform an offline microcode update.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 You want to configure SNMP on a Hitachi Unified Storage system. The license key is already installed
and enabled. What are two key steps when configuring SNMP? (Choose two.)
A. Import the MIB file into the HUS.
B. Install an SNMP Manager on the HUS.
C. Create the SNMP environment file in the HUS.
D. Register the SNMP configuration files in the HUS.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 What is Hitachi Data System's recommended practice for zoning?
A. port-based zoning
B. zoning is optional
C. single HBA zoning (one HBA per zone)
D. single operation system zoning (all HBAs from one OS in a zone)
Answer: C

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NO.15 A Hitachi Unified Storage system is connected to a Solaris server. If you want to optimize performance
for the host I/Os, how do you determine the appropriate queue depth value?
A. Set queue depth to 1.
B. Use the operating system default value.
C. The value is set according to the results of the initial SCSI inquiry.
D. Using the Host installation guide for Fibre Channel.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You have been asked to allocate storage from a Hitachi Unified Storage system to a cluster of AIX
hosts. The application owner wants you to make sure that the queue depth is set to 16 for all the LUNs.
Where do you define the queue depth?
A. on each LUN
B. on the server HBAs
C. on the WWNN Target Ports
D. on the WWPN Target Ports
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer wants to migrate data between two Hitachi Unified Storage systems using TrueCopy. What
are two requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The DM-LU must be greater than 10GB.
B. There must be FC connectivity between the arrays.
C. The P-Vol and S-Vol size must be equal.
D. A Command Device must be created.
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 A customer has a Hitachi Unified Storage (HUS) system model 110 configured with iSCSI I/O interface
boards. They now want to connect it to a FC-SAN and have purchased the FC-Option upgrade to do so.
Which two tasks must be performed on the HUS system? (Choose two.)
A. Set the HUS FC port topology as Fabric.
B. Set the HUS FC port topology as Point-to-Point.
C. Install and enable the FC-Option on the HUS.
D. Install and enable the FC Expansion Board.
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 What needs to be replaced in case of a local memory DIMM failure on a Hitachi Unified Storage
controller?
A. the controller
B. the local memory DIMM
C. the controller and the local memory DIMM
D. the controller, the local memory DIMM and the cache DIMMs
Answer: C

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NO.20 A customer wants to create a multi-path environment for a specific Redhat Linux application on a
Hitachi Unified Storage system. They have created Host Groups on all of the available ports and mapped
the logical units accordingly. Which two multi-pathing options can be used for active/active connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Device Mapper
B. Multipath I/O (MPIO)
C. Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager
D. Multiplexed I/O (MPxIO)
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: HH0-240
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Modular)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer has created User Accounts within Storage Navigator on an HUS VM.
How can you create a backup of this information?
A. Create a ghost image of the SVP .
B. Use HiSAT to keep track of the information in a CSV format.
C. Copy the source files from the SVP .
D. Use the download configuration function of the Storage Navigator control panel.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two activities can be performed in an HUS VM storage system without interrupting user
access to data? (Choose two.)
A. upgrading Cache Memory from 64 GB to 128 GB
B. running the CUDG4 (Control Unit Diagnosis) test
C. changing the DKC emulation type
D. replacing the DKB
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You plan to use the raidcom command to create new LDEVs in an HUS VM. Which two actions
are required before you use this command? (Choose two.)
A. Create a command device LDEV.
B. Install RAID Manager/CCI in client host.
C. Install the TrueCopy license.
D. Create a RAID Manager/CCI configuration file.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What are three functions of the SVP on an HUS VM? (Choose three.)
A. It controls access to production data.
B. It provides the maintenance LAN interface.
C. It controls the microprogram exchange process.
D. It provides CE access to the maintenance functions.
E. It communicates to the secondary SVP using the heartbeat function.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Your customer wants to virtualize a third-party storage system behind an HUS VM.
Where can you discover the external volumes?
A. in the SVP Maintenance screen
B. in the Storage Navigator Add External Volumes screen
C. in the Hitachi Device Manager Add Subsystem screen
D. in the External Volume Manager Virtualize Volumes screen
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has virtualized both Clariion CX4 and USP V arrays in their data center behind a
new HUS VM array.
Within the HUS VM, they want to remove one of the virtualized LDEVs from the Clariion CX4.
Which Universal Volume Manager wizard should be used?
A. Device Manager Wizard
B. Delete External Volumes Wizard
C. Disconnect Third-Party Devices Wizard
D. Edit External WWNs Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.7 Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) has been configured on a Solaris 10 server with 8 LUNs
configured across two paths.
You want to verify the number of LUNs and the path assignments. Which command would you use?
A. dlnkmgr check -path
B. dlnkmgr view -path -c
C. dlnkmgr disp -lun -path
D. dlnkmgr show -stinfo -t
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are installing Hitachi Global Link Manager (HGLM) in an environment where port 162 is in
use by another application.
The network administrator has instructed you to configure HGLM to use port 182 for SNMP instead.
Which file must you change to configure this port?
A. server.properties
B. account.settings
C. hglm.port.config
D. host.properties
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are setting LUN security and creating Host Groups on an HUS VM port. What should be
considered?
A. Multiple Host Groups are available within the port only when LUN security is enabled.
B. Multiple Host Groups are available within the port only when LUN security is disabled.
C. LUN security can only be enabled per group of two ports sharing the same microprocessor.
D. If LUN security is disabled, you can specify multiple WWPNs to the default Host Group.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A storage administrator would like to connect 10 hosts into the same FC ports of an HUS VM.
They are concerned that one host with high I/Os will impact the other hosts on the same FC ports.
Which HBA parameter should be set to limit the number of outstanding I/Os on each host?
A. queue depth
B. command length
C. command depth
D. queue length
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HH0-450
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Architect-Hitachi NAS Platform)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When configuring iSCSI initiators, which two must be configured to facilitate dynamic target (server)
discovery from the Hitachi NAS platform? (Choose two.)
A. the iSCSI LUN
B. the iSCSI target portal
C. the iSCSI IQN
D. the iSNS
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which three documents are required deliverables as part a Hitachi NAS Platform data migration service?
(Choose three.)
A. the file system migration workbook
B. the network topology diagram
C. the NAS service workbook
D. the NAS migration hardware configuration sheet
E. the hardware inventory sheet
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Your customer is planning to purchase a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3200 cluster. Which type of
optical 10 GbE interface will they need for their network switches?
A. Twinax
B. XENPAK
C. SFP+
D. XFP
Answer: D

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NO.4 The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform connected to a Hitachi AMS2300 requires file
level replication to another Hitachi NAS Platform. However, there is a concern over the large numbers of
files and about the high change rate as the replication time window is small. What should be done to
reduce the replication time?
A. Use Transfer Primary Access.
B. Use the changed directory list option.
C. Migrate the admin EVS to the node replicating the data.
D. Create an additional IP address on the source EVS.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A production Hitachi NAS Platform is connected to a Hitachi VSP with a storage pool consisting of SATA
drives. To improve performance, the customer wants to migrate to SAS drives on an externalized Hitachi
AMS2300 with minimal customer involvement and minimal impact to the system and users. Which two
products should be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi Universal Replicator
B. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
C. Hitachi Device Manager
D. Hitachi Tuning Manager
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A customer is planning to use the JetMirror functionality on their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which two are
required from the customer to plan the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. the size of the storage pools in use
B. the number of files used
C. the distance to the destination system
D. if systems are managed by a common SMU
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 You are asked to design a Hitachi NAS Platform solution for a customer with existing Hitachi storage
systems installed. The existing storage and SAN infrastructure should be used wherever possible. Which
two can be re-used? (Choose two.)
A. spare Qlogic 2310 HBAs
B. Fibre Channel switches
C. Hitachi AMS500 storage systems
D. Hitachi 7700E storage systems
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 A customer has a Hitachi AMS2100 attached to a 2-node Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster. They
initially purchased 15 TB and have just purchased an additional 5 TB. They now need to expand their
existing storage pools. What must be considered when expanding the storage pools.?
A. All system drives must be of the same size in terms of capacity.
B. All system drives must be offline.
C. All system drives must be in the same system drive group.
D. All storage pools must be offline.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer must have 24/7 uptime on their Hitachi NAS Platform 4-node 3200 cluster. They need to
complete a major upgrade on each of the 4 nodes and must have a method of failing over their production
services to a non-production cluster. Which two topics must be discussed with the customer prior to the
major upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. automatic failover using HiTrack
B. the purchase of a backup cluster
C. establishing a Server Farm
D. use of MPIO for failover
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 A customer has a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 cluster dual fabric attached to a Hitachi AMS 2000 Family
storage system in a fault tolerant configuration containing multiple EVSs.. What would cause all of the
EVSs to fail?
A. The preferred SD path fails.
B. An AMS controller fails.
C. The SIM blade fails.
D. A SAN switch fails.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform 3200 wants to maximize potential performance
and fault tolerance to an attached Hitachi USP V storage system. Which configuration should be used?
A. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on cluster 1 of
the USP V.
B. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and cluster 2 of
the USP V.
C. Use hports 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on cluster 1 of
the USP V.
D. Use hports 1, 3, 5 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and cluster 2 on
the USP V.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Why should you set superflush in a Hitachi NAS Platform?
A. to improve read performance
B. to improve write performance
C. to flush data from the NVRAM to the sector cache
D. to flush data from the sector cache to the storage system
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer has a heterogenous server and desktop operating systems environment. Users are
experiencing authentication issues across multiple OS platforms. Which business-related qualifiers are
relevant for designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to resolve these issues?
A. backup window and SLAs
B. type of external authentication
C. number of concurrent sessions/users
D. type of users' tasks and responsibilities
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer wants to discuss manual site failover design. The solution design must guarantee the
replication of file system snapshots. What should the customer use?
A. TrueCopy
B. Intelligent Data Replication
C. Incremental Data Replication
D. Transfer Primary Access
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer with a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 wants to implement anti-virus scanning. In which Hitachi
NAS Platform related document do you find information about supported anti-virus scan engine software?
A. the Access Control List (ACL)
B. the Administration Guide
C. the Independent Software Vendor (ISV) list
D. the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
Answer: C

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NO.16 A customer wants to use the data migration function with their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which three
criteria are used by this function? (Choose three.)
A. by last access
B. by source file system block size
C. by file name
D. by path
E. by protocol type
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 A customer is running a multimedia based application and is looking for a Hitachi NAS Platform 3200
solution that is capable of generating 2 GB/s throughput using the NFS protocol. They will reuse an
existing Hitachi USP V and attach it behind the Hitachi NAS Platform. What information should you gather
before designing a solution meeting the customer's business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. percentage of read and writes
B. number of file systems
C. NIS server details
D. number of FEDs and BEDs
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Your customer is planning a disaster recovery site and they need to know the form factors of the
Hitachi NAS Platform models for physical planning purposes. Which two statements are correct ?
(Choose two.)
A. The 3090 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 3 rack units high.
B. The 3080 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 2 rack units high.
C. The 3200 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 4 rack units high.
D. The 3090 and 3100 fit into a 19 inch rack and are of the same height.
Answer: A,C

Hitachi   HH0-450   HH0-450

NO.19 You are designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to migrate files to a Hitachi Content Platform (HCP).
Which configuration method must be used?
A. Use the connector wizard.
B. Use the CLI command xvl-path-add.
C. Use the CLI command external-path-add.
D. Use the CLI command migration-add-external-path.
Answer: D

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NO.20 A customer environment consists of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster connected to a Hitachi
AMS2500 with SATA disk drives in RAID-6 configuration. The customer is using this solution primarily for
data backup and is expecting optimal write performance and optimal reliability. Which "SATA Write &
Compare" mode should be used?
A. SATA Write & Compare Full
B. SATA Write & Compare Enabled
C. SATA Write & Compare Disabled
D. SATA Write & Compare Optimal
Answer: B

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Exam Code: QQ0-401
Exam Name: HDI (SDI-Service Desk Foundation Qualification)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is a common metric used to measure Service Desk performance?
A.Abandon before answer (ABA)
B.Average time to respond (ATR)
C.Incident quality score (IQS)
D.Total faxes received (TFR)
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which metric is used to measure the average amount of time that a customer waits before a call is
answered?
A.Abandon before answer.
B.Availability.
C.Average speed to answer.
D.First contact resolution.
Answer:C

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NO.3 What is the best reason for using proper grammar and spelling when documenting Incidents?
A.Not using proper grammar and spelling is sloppy.
B.Not using proper grammar and spelling will anger the customer.
C.Using proper grammar and spelling is professional.
D.Using proper grammar and spelling will impress your supervisor.
Answer:C

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NO.4 What is a best practice when writing e-mail?
A.Use animation to emphasise your point.
B.Use different colours to improve readability.
C.Use emoticons to convey empathy.
D.Use standard headers and footers for consistency.
Answer:D

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NO.5 Why is it important for you to demonstrate confidence when dealing with others?
A.Demonstrating confidence establishes credibility with customers.
B.Demonstrating confidence increases first contact resolution.
C.Demonstrating confidence maximises talk time.
D.Demonstrating confidence minimises conflicts with customers.
Answer:A

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NO.6 What is a best practice for helping an emotional caller?
A.Ask the customer to talk about their personal problems.
B.Help the customer focus on the Incident and resolution.
C.Maintain a professional approach according to the SLA.
D.Move the conversation carefully on to general issues within the company.
Answer:B

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NO.7 What is a best practice for establishing effective relationships with your customers?
A.Ensure that your customer understands the SLA.
B.Provide technical language guidance.
C.Show your customer sympathy.
D.Understand your customer business.
Answer:D

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NO.8 What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A.Closed questions.
B.Open questions.
C.Technical questions.
D.Personal questions.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which is a best practice for dealing with stress?
A.Answer fewer inquiries.
B.Confront the issues that are causing stress.
C.Stop customers from venting.
D.Take time off work.
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?
A.The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B.The customer previous experience with the Service Desk.
C.The customer position in the business.
D.The level of support provided by the Service Desk.
Answer:B

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NO.11 What is the most important reason for maintaining legal compliance in the Service Desk?
A.Maintaining legal compliance prevents other teams seeing what the Service Desk does.
B.Maintaining legal compliance protects the organisation assets.
C.Maintaining legal compliance protects you from blame.
D.Maintaining legal compliance protects your managers.
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which action best illustrates responsible team behaviour?
A.Logging every call.
B.Reporting security violations.
C.Sharing knowledge.
D.Taking more than your share of calls.
Answer:C

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NO.13 What is the most important benefit of being empathetic towards your customers?
A.Your customers will know that you feel sorry for them.
B.Your customers will know that you can fix their problem for them.
C.Your customers will know that you understand how they feel.
D.Your customers will want to talk to you whenever they call.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which process is concerned with the capture, structure, and reuse of solutions?
A.Call management.
B.Incident management.
C.Knowledge management.
D.Problem management.
Answer:C

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NO.15 When made by a customer, which comment, is most likely to indicate that a conflict is developing?
A.I am tired of my computer always being down.
B.I don't understand what you mean.
C.I see what you are saying to me.
D.You need to slow down.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which statement best characterises a friendly and supportive workplace?
A.Management encourages extensive overtime.
B.Team members help each other.
C.Team members work alone.
D.Team members work only their allotted hours.
Answer:B

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NO.17 When is it most appropriate to escalate an Incident to a manager?
A.Escalate an Incident if the customer begins to complain.
B.Escalate an Incident the customer is emotional.
C.Escalate an Incident if the customer asks to speak to a manager.
D.Escalate an Incident if the Service Desk is short of staff.
Answer:C

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NO.18 What is the best description of an Incident?
A.An Incident is any call from a customer.
B.An Incident is a call routed by the ACD.
C.An Incident is a management statistic.
D.An Incident causes an interruption to normal service.
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which of the following best describes your sales and marketing role within the Service Desk?
A.Log the opportunity so that it can be followed up on at a later date.
B.Recognise opportunities to increase business and know what to do with them.
C.Refer any business opportunities to the marketing department.
D.Stop trying to resolve the problem and concentrate on increasing the business.
Answer:B

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NO.20 What is a best practice for handling phone calls?
A.Clear your desk of any clutter.
B.Show the customer sympathy.
C.Use a standard greeting.
D.Use formal titles when greeting customers.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: FCNSA
Exam Name: Fortinet (fortinet certified network security administrator)
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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following are valid authentication user group types on a FortiGate unit? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Firewall
B. Directory Service
C. Local
D. LDAP
E. PKI
Answer: A, B, C, E

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NO.2 If a FortiGate unit has a dmz interface IP address of 210.192.168.2 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.0, what is a valid dmz DHCP accessing range?
A. 172.168.0.1-172.168.0.10
B. 210.192.168.3-210.192.168.10
C. 210.192.168.1 - 210.192.168.4
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding Banned Words are correct.? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
B. When creating a banned word list, an administrator can indicate either specific words or patterns.
C. Banned words can be expressed as wildcards or regular expressions.
D. Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
E. The FortiGate unit includes a pre-defined library of common banned words.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.4 Which of the following items represent the minimum configuration steps an administrator must perform
to enable Data Leak Prevention from flowing through the FortiGate unit? (Select all that apply.)
A. Assign a DLP sensor in a firewall policy.
B. Apply one or more DLP rules to a firewall policy.
C. Enable DLP globally using the config sys dip command in the CU.
D. Define one or more DLP rules.
E. Define a DLP sensor.
F. Apply a DLP sensor to a DoS sensor policy.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.5 When creating administrative users, the assigned____________________ determines user rights on
the FortiGate unit.
Answer: access profile

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Exam Code: EW0-200
Exam Name: Extreme Networks (Extreme networks associate(ena))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How would you stop a scheduled configuration download from happening? Use the CLI command:
A. cancel configuration download
B. download configuration cancel
C. configuration download cancel
D. delete configuration download
Answer: B

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NO.2 This type of OSPF router has its router interfaces connected into multiple OSPF areas.
A. ASBR.
B. ABR.
C. DR.
D. BDR.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In ExtremeWare, active VLANs that are configured with ports and an IP address and configured to
forward IP and run a routing protocol will have their subnet advertised.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.4 Extreme Networks switches build their forwarding database from the incoming packet field information
containing the:
A. Source MAC address.
B. Destination MAC address.
C. Source IP address.
D. Destination IP address.
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which statement is true? In a PC, the configured default gateway:
A. Is always within the PC IP (sub) network.
B. Is always outside the PC IP (sub) network.
C. Is always behind a router.
D. Can be anywhere.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which of the following CLI commands would you use to enable ECMP for RIP?
A. enable rip route sharing
B. enable route sharing rip
C. enable iproute sharing
D. None of these, ecmp is not supported by RIP
Answer: D

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NO.7 Given the following information, select the option that would allow you to change the active
ExtremeWare version to 6.1.9b11 upon reboot.
A. use image primary
B. download config primary
C. use config primary
D. download image primary
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which CLI command would you use to configure the switch to ignore STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd> vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which step would you take to configure a VLAN to only allow IP-related traffic?
A. config <vlan> protocol ip
B. config protocol <vlan> ip
C. config ip protocol <vlan>
D. None of these.
Answer:A

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NO.10 In spanning tree, the designated bridge is the bridge with the:
A. least-cost path to the root bridge
B. highest bridge priority
C. lowest port cost on all ports
D. None of these
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which CLI command would you use to create a default route with a metric of 5 and a gateway of
10.0.0.1?
A. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
B. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
C. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
D. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
Answer:A

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NO.12 The default administrator login name for a new Extreme switch was entered as ADMIN (all caps). This
will allow the administrator access to the CLI.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following protocol filter/s is/are predefined in ExtremeWare?
A. OSPF
B. TCP
C. NETBIOS
D. All of these
Answer: C

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NO.14 An Extreme Switch is shipped with a pre-configured VLAN called DEFAULT that has all switch ports as
tagged members.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.15 A 802.1Q tag is a marker inserted between the source and destination MAC addresses fields of the
Ethernet frame.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which CLI command will you use to change the CLI prompt from the default display to Switch02?
A. CONFIG SNMP SYSLOCATION Switch02
B. CONFIG SNMP SYSNAME Switch02
C. CONFIG CLI PROMPT Switch02
D. CONFIG CLI DISPLAY Switch02
Answer: B

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NO.17 ExtremeWare, pre-installed on every Extreme Networks ?chipset switch, combines industry standard
protocols to ensure interoperability with legacy switches and routers, QoS for bandwidth management
and traffic prioritization in today networks.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.18 What CLI command is used to disable learning of incoming RIP routes on an interface?
A. disable rip learning <VLAN>
B. configure rip rxmode none <VLAN>
C. configure rip interface <VLAN> passive
D. None of these
Answer: B

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NO.19 The CLI console port utilizes a serial cable for physical switch to terminal connection.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.20 If you wish to silently drop all traffic destined for IP network 100.219.10.0/24 with a gateway of
10.219.10.1/24 and without receiving any ICMP messages that would otherwise be generated, which CLI
command would you execute?
A. configure iproute delete 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1
B. configure iproute default 100.219.10.0/24
C. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1
D. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ISFS
Exam Name: EXIN (Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The company Midwest Insurance has taken many measures to protect its information. It uses an
Information Security Management System, the input and output of data in applications is validated,
confidential documents are sent in encrypted form and staff use tokens to access information systems.
Which of these is not a technical measure?
A. Information Security Management System
B. The use of tokens to gain access to information systems
C. Validation of input and output data in applications
D. Encryption of information
Answer: A

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NO.2 You work in the IT department of a medium-sized company. Confidential information has got into the
wrong hands several times. This has hurt the image of the company. You have been asked to propose
organizational security measures for laptops at your company. What is the first step that you should take?
A. Formulate a policy regarding mobile media (PDAs, laptops, smartphones, USB sticks)
B. Appoint security personnel
C. Encrypt the hard drives of laptops and USB sticks
D. Set up an access control policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You employ a few people who, while waiting to
make a delivery, can carry out other tasks. You notice, however, that they use this time to send and read
their private mail and surf the Internet. In legal terms, in which way can the use of the Internet and e-mail
facilities be best regulated?
A. Installing an application that makes certain websites no longer accessible and that filters attachments
in e-mails
B. Drafting a code of conduct for the use of the Internet and e-mail in which the rights and
obligations of both the employer and staff are set down
C. Implementing privacy regulations
D. Installing a virus scanner
Answer: B

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NO.4 Who is authorized to change the classification of a document?
A. The author of the document
B. The administrator of the document
C. The owner of the document
D. The manager of the owner of the document
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is an example of a physical security measure?
A. A code of conduct that requires staff to adhere to the clear desk policy, ensuring that
confidential information is not left visibly on the desk at the end of the work day
B. An access control policy with passes that have to be worn visibly
C. The encryption of confidential information
D. Special fire extinguishers with inert gas, such as Argon
Answer: D

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NO.6 Why do organizations have an information security policy?
A. In order to demonstrate the operation of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle within an organization.
B. In order to ensure that staff do not break any laws.
C. In order to give direction to how information security is set up within an organization.
D. In order to ensure that everyone knows who is responsible for carrying out the backup
procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You work for a large organization. You notice that you have access to confidential information that you
should not be able to access in your position. You report this security incident to the helpdesk. The
incident cycle isinitiated. What are the stages of the security incident cycle?
A. Threat, Damage, Incident, Recovery
B. Threat, Damage, Recovery, Incident
C. Threat, Incident, Damage, Recovery
D. Threat, Recovery, Incident, Damage
Answer: C

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NO.8 Why is air-conditioning placed in the server room.?
A. In the server room the air has to be cooled and the heat produced by the equipment has to be
extracted. The air in the room is also dehumidified and filtered.
B. When a company wishes to cool its offices, the server room is the best place. This way, no office space
needs to be sacrificed for such a large piece of equipment.
C. It is not pleasant for the maintenance staff to have to work in a server room that is too warm.
D. Backup tapes are made from thin plastic which cannot withstand high temperatures.
Therefore, if it gets too hot in a server room, they may get damaged.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your organization has an office with space for 25 workstations. These workstations are all fully
equipped and in use. Due to a reorganization 10 extra workstations are added, 5 of which are used for a
call centre 24 hours per day. Five workstations must always be available. What physical security
measures must be taken in order to ensure this?
A. Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. You would therefore have spare equipment that can
be used to replace any non-functioning equipment.
B. Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. Ensure that there are security personnel both in the
evenings and at night, so that staff can work there safely and securely.
C. Obtain an extra office and connect all 10 new workstations to an emergency power supply and UPS
(Uninterruptible Power Supply). Adjust the access control system to the working hours of the new staff.
Inform the building security personnel that work will also be carried out in the evenings and at night.
D. Obtain an extra office and provide a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) for the five most important
workstations.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What physical security measure is necessary to control access to company information?
A. Air-conditioning
B. Username and password
C. The use of break-resistant glass and doors with the right locks, frames and hinges
D. Prohibiting the use of USB sticks
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EX0-113
Exam Name: EXIN (TMap Next Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.2 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.5 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EX0-116
Exam Name: EXIN (EXIN Cloud Computing Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is an example of the use of location information?
A. to determine the user's native language
B. to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C. to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D. to provide the correct version of the application for the user's operating system
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
A. NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B. NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C. The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D. With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is OpenID used for.?
A. to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B. to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C. to pay on-line via your own bank account
D. to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites
Answer: D

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NO.5 Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?
A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor
Answer: B

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