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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.5 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.6 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.7 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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NO.8 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.10 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.12 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.14 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.15 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: EMC (Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 290 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is a key VDC and cloud planning consideration for IT governance?
A. Change management
B. Regulations
C. Separation of duties
D. Creating trust zones
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two capacity management objectives often conflict with each other?
A. Manageability and redundancy
B. Availability and security
C. Compliance and efficiency
D. Efficiency and availability
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is its approach to addressing performance issues during the Virtualize phrase of the cloud
maturity mode?
A. Selective
B. Investigative
C. Proactive
D. Reactive
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the key business goal when consolidating by business application.?
A. Virtualize the compute environment for efficiency
B. Identify security gaps and increase security measures
C. Reduce footprint by decreasing energy and space requirements
D. Implement converged network technology for performance
Answer: A

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NO.5 When applying compliance principles to your company s VDC and cloud architectures, how should you
approach your information life cycle management strategy?
A. Data of reset
B. Archival and offsite storage
C. Production and backup
D. Inception to completion
Answer: B

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NO.6 A development organization uses a PaaS service from a public cloud to develop and test an application.
Once sending and verification are complete, the development team discovers that the cloud services
uses proprietary software in the PaaS clustering mailing and deployment of the application within their
production data center imposition without significant application records.
What this type of lock-in called?
A. Geographical lock-in
B. Technology lock-in
C. Cloud lock-in
D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.7 A midsize company has deployed centralized storage and is currently planning to virtualize their servers.
They have considered their application into Tiers, with Tier 1 application requiring the same service and
performance levels of the current servers.
They have purchased new, high capacity servers for the virtualized environment and are planning to
consolidate several physical servers into a single hypervisor. They are know determining the bandwidth
requirements of the application in order to purchase the current number of FCME CNAs for each server.
The results of their analysis for Tier 1 application are as follows: Average SAN Bandwidth: 3 Gb/s
Average LAN Bandwidth: 2 Gb/s
What is the minimum number of CNAs they would need to install an each server to meet the bandwidth
required for the Tier 1 application while providing CAN redundancy and high availability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are three attributes of a cloud services design?
A. Web-based APIs, shared resources, minimal capital expenditures
B. Static service, fixed priced access, improved economics
C. Accessed via a web portal, self-service, throttled access
D. Dedicated resources, usage-based pricing, web-based APIs
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has implemented a Vblock solution in their primary data centre. They are using a single
management tool set to configure and provisions the computer, network, and storage resources within the
Vblock.
Which management tool are they using?
A. EMC ControlCenter
B. EMC Unisphere
C. EMC United Infrastructure Manager
D. VMware vCenter
Answer: C

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NO.10 A large company with multiple heterogeneous arrays would like to take advantage of the performance
simplified management benefits of storage virtualization. They have a data center transformation pain that
includes producing power and cooling at a high priority.
Which storage virtualization method would meet their requirements?
A. Network-based storage tiering
B. Vertical storage tiering
C. Server-based storage tiering
D. Horizontal storage tiering
Answer: B

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NO.11 When using logging to maintain server security, which is the key element for intrusion detection and
should be contained the server logs?
A. Vulnerability scan that identifies susceptible services that are active on the server.
B. Results of penetration testing through uncover problem probable weaknesses.
C. An entry for each application transaction with details of the organization.
D. Alerts to suspicious activities that require further investigation.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your client is considering a virtualized data center (VDC) as an investment in process improvement.
A VDC can improve the delivery of which business process?
A. Auditing
B. Business continuity / disaster recovery
C. Compliance
D. Capacity planning / management
Answer: D

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NO.13 What would you identify as a business application in applying IT as a Service to IT processions?
A. Defined workflow request processes
B. Funded as a cost center
C. Virtual data center best practices
D. SLA-driven management
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the first phase of the Virtual Data Center Design Process?
A. Evaluate technology options
B. Create plan
C. Perform initial analysis
D. Gather data
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer has asked you to develop a framework for assuming that the cloud Part of this will resume
an assessment development.
Where should you lock first for assessment criteria and technologies?
A. International standards
B. Internal IT development
C. Company metadata
D. Industry best practices
Answer: D

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NO.1 A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMC VNX.
Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and
replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions
preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks.
What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open?
A. 8888, 8887, 5081
B. 80, 443, 8080
C. 5057, 445, 5087
D. 23, 25, 22
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer requires an asynchronous DR solution for an NFS-only client environment. The customer
wants the solution to be simple to implement. It was recommended they create a single NIS domain, and
use several NIS servers to provide centralized authentication to the NFS clients at both the source and
destination sites. The customer asks you whether they should consider using VDMs in this environment.
What do you advise?
A. VDMs would offer no advantages to this environment.
B. VDMs allow VMWare integration of NFS service environments.
C. VDMs eliminate the need for Usermapper in NFS environments.
D. VDMs allow for assignment of specific CPUs to a NFS server.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer plans to connect ESXi 5.0 hosts to a new EMC VNX array. They want to take advantage of
the hardware-assisted locking feature in VAAI. Which is a feature of hardware-assisted locking?
A. Locking at the block level of a logical unit
B. Locking the LUN instead of the block level
C. Accessing a block from multiple hosts at the same time
D. Automatic enabling of safe data caching
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has a CIFS DR solution with EMC VNX using a One-to-Many replication topology. The
customer asks you to explain replication behavior under the following conditions:
Production site failover or switchover to a DR site
Replication start and reverse is performed
What would you advise the customer?
A. The original production site remains a One-to-Many replication source for the other remaining DR sites.
B. All remaining replications sessions to the other DR sites are suspended.
C. The original production site goes into cascade mode to remain a replication source for the remaining
DR sites.
D. The DR site becomes the replication source for the remaining DR sites and the original production site
is marked as invalid.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has two EMC VNX configured to replicate between sites. Each VNX has dual Control
Stations. The primary Control Station at the source site fails at 6 p.m. and reboots. At 8 p.m., the customer
completes DR testing and observes CIFS replication does not failover to the target site VNX. Why does
CIFS replication not failover to the target VNX during the DR test?
A. The control station of the primary VNX should have been failed back.
B. The control station of the second VNX should have been failed over.
C. The control station of the primary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
D. The control station of the secondary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features
for their existing DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically
configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.
After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯
are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores.
What is the reason for this behavior.?
A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore.
B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools.
C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated.
D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click on the calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A SQL database requires 1,000 I/O per second with 85% reads and 15% writes. If RAID 1/0 is used, what
is the total number of spindles required to generate the required I/O per second?
A. Ten 10K drives
B. Four 15K drives
C. One Flash drive
D. Fourteen 7.2K drives
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has two EMC VNX, one at the primary site and the other at a DR site located 100 km away.
The WAN connection between sites is a 100 Mb/s dark fiber link with 4 ms latency.
A previous storage administrator configured the pool LUNs for the file system on thin LUNs. The file
system is growing at a rate of 500 GB per week and is on a VDM. The new storage administrator reports
performance issues with the file system.
What is the most likely reason for the performance issue?
A. Thin LUNs are used for the file system.
B. The WAN link should be upgraded to an eLAN.
C. The VNX system requires an upgrade.
D. The file system has too many concurrent users connected.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator is attempting to vMotion a VM from one vSphere ESXi 5.0 host to another. The ESXi
servers are connected to three VNX arrays on the fabric. The vMotion fails. What is the most likely
reason?
A. RDMs are attached to the VM with different host LUN numbers on the ESXi servers.
B. There are active SnapView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
C. RDMs are in physical compatibility mode and not eligible for vMotion.
D. There are active MirrorView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer has an Oracle ASM database on an EMC VNX with FAST Suite enabled. They observe
intermittent performance degradation due to momentary data hot spots caused by bursty transaction rates.
What recommendation would you make to help alleviate these hot spots?
A. Enable Fast VP on the ASM LUNs
B. Modify the ASM rebalance power priority
C. Enable Fast Cache on the ASM LUNs
D. Disable ASM storage management
Answer: C

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NO.11 A customer requests a performance review of their EMC VNX before FAST Cache is implemented.
You notice a dedicated LUN has a write size of 4 KB, and the disks are performing writes of 8 KB. What is
causing this behavior?
A. Coalescing
B. Pre-fetching
C. Flushing
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.12 A storage administrator reports they are unable configure SAN Copy connections between two VNX.
The required cabling is in place and zoning is correct, but the SP connections still do not appear in
Unisphere Manager. What could have caused this issue?
A. SAN Copy is not installed on both VNX arrays.
B. SAN Copy is only licensed for local copies.
C. The SP ports are already being used by hosts.
D. Both VNX arrays are not in the same domain.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration:
Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free
SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free
NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free
The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool.
What is the data distribution after the data is written?
A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free
B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free
Answer: A

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NO.14 A system administrator wants to migrate medical-imaging data stored on an EMC VNX. The host
connects to the VNX via iSCSI. The IP SAN infrastructure has recently been updated to support 1 Gb/10
GB switching. The system administrator wants to maximize data transfer performance. What would you
recommend?
A. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 9000 byte frame.
B. Use a 4 KB memory page size.
C. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 2400 byte frame.
D. Increase the write-aside value.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are planning a CIFS DR solution for two existing EMC VNX. Each VNX has dual Control Stations.
Each VNX is also configured for a RecoverPoint protection solution on other VNX LUNs that are non-file
related. What recommendation would you give the customer concerning the CIFS DR solution?
A. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems before
configuring VNX Replicator
B. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems after
configuring VNX Replicator
C. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator,
and then configure IP aliasing on the destination VNX system Control Stations after configuring VNX
Replicator.
D. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator
and use RecoverPoint to provide protection of the source VNX Control Stations to the destination VNX.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A client has an EMC VNX configured with four storage ports, four 15-drive DAEs (disk array
enclosures) and a total of forty drives (20 NL-SAS and 20 SAS drives). The client is using RAID 5 (4+1)
RAID groups with a traditional LUN configuration.
What is the recommended SAS LCC port configuration for optimal performance?
A. Distribute drives evenly across all ports
B. Distribute drives on all odd ports
C. Distribute drives on all even ports
D. Distribute drives on a single port
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer has a Windows-only environment connected to an EMC VNX for File at their main campus
site. The customer plans to install a new EMC VNX at a remote branch office site. The new VNX will be
used to implement a DR solution for their main campus VNX using several deduplicated file systems
shared and available to clients via CIFS.
Which solution do you recommend to the customer?
A. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
B. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
C. Use VNX SAN Copy to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from the
main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
D. Use VNX MirrorView/A to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from
the main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block and each host generates the same size I/O.
The customer reports the FC-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput than the
NFS-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. Host Patch levels
C. Ethernet Network
D. NFS version
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block.
The customer reports NFS-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput via NFSv4 versus
the FC-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. I/O size
C. Host Patch levels
D. NFS version
Answer: B

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NO.20 A customer recently purchased an EMC VNX to be connected to four ESXi 5.0 hosts via FC. Five of the
associated VMs (virtual machines) are running SQL Server 2008 R2. To avoid contention, the customer
wants the VM's database and log drives on separate datastores.
Which ESXi 5.0 feature would satisfy this requirement?
A. Network interface card teaming
B. Virtual Machine Anti-Affinity
C. Raw Device Mappings
D. VMDK Affinity
Answer: B

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NO.1 When designing Isilon solutions, what issues should you pay special attention to?
A.Avoid being too enthusiastic over the technology Balance technical and business requirements
Provide options Design to meet customer expectations
B.Workflow Document Solutions Document Application types Data strategy
C.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Provide options Practical vs.
theoretical implementations
D.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Downstream hand-off Design
to meet customer expectations
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have had several discussions with your customer in the processor design industry. They
have stated that they want a Scale-Out NAS platform for their design environment. Their most
significant responses were "We have 125 design engineers accessing large diagrams and we need
high throughput to support them. Can we also get the highest performance available? We need to
stay ahead of our competitors." Other areas you discussed were their data retention policies and
workflow after the chip design is completed. They plan to archive the design files but the files must
stay on line.
What is your initial node recommendation?
A. A-Series nodes for the active diagrams and X-Series nodes for the archives.
B. S-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL Series nodes for the archives
C. X-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL 400 nodes for the archives
D. X-Series nodes with SSD for the active diagrams and NL nodes for the archives
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your customer purchased an Isilon cluster with eight X400 nodes for Home Directories. Your
follow-up discussions have uncovered an opportunity to expand the cluster to support the Legal
Department. As you prepare to complete the Workflow Profile Document, you meet with the
customer to discuss data protection.
Which key areas should you address?
A.Default cluster protection level Additional directory level protections Snapshots and replication
B.WORM requirements Network ports for replication Snapshots for user restores
C.Default cluster protection level Backup windows and processes Concurrency of user access
D.Protocols (SMB, NFS, FTP , HTTP , HDFS) Authentication and Directory Services Performance and
latency concerns
Answer: A

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NO.4 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What application are you using to create directories?
B. Is your datacenter ISO9001 compliant?
C. What protocols are accessing your NAS?
D. How many users are in your Directory Services?
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are reviewing an opportunity with a trusted advisor. You both discover gaps in the initial
solution design.
Each iterative discussion with the customer helps you define the solution better. The documents
produced capture the customer's requirements.
What else needs to occur to refine the sizing considerations?
A. Complete your Solution Design Document and forward to EMC consulting.
B. Validate the Workflow Profile Assessment and test the solution against your findings.
C. Review you assumptions and ask the customer what business issue you're solving.
D. Provide the CIO with the findings and gain commitment to a Proof of Concept.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When conducting high-level interviews with stakeholders of a project, what are the key
questions that should be asked?
A.How much usable storage are you looking for? What client OS will access this storage? Which
applications will access this storage?
B.Which backup application is in use today?
What is your change rate?
How many clients will connect to the cluster?
C.What does your network architecture look like?
Do you have existing NAS infrastructure?
Do you have 10Gb or 1Gb ethernet?
Which applications will access this storage?
D.Who are the application owners?
How much usable storage is needed?
What applications will be accessing the storage?
How many users are in your Active Directory?
Answer: A

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NO.7 What key considerations should be kept in mind when designing a 300TB solution?
A.Workflow management Defining class of service Time of day services RPO and RTO Data retention
and backup
B.Defining class of service Time of day services ROI and TCO Data retention and backup
C.SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots Space for snapshots
D.Always include 2% SSD SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots InsightIQ
Answer: A

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NO.8 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What applications access this storage?
B. What type of racks are in your datacenter?
C. Are you using a KVM to access your storage?
D. How many NICs do your clients have?
Answer: A

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NO.9 When designing Isilon solutions, which issue should you pay special attention to?
A. Create a workflow document
B. Conduct stakeholder interviews
C. Follow all SSD sizing rules
D. Meet customer expectations
Answer: D

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NO.10 You set up a meeting to gather information on a new project with the IT manager and plan to
use a workflow profile assessment (WPA) to document the requirements.
Why is it recommended to talk to as many stakeholders as possible?
A. Completing this document gives sales a list of who the stakeholders are at customer site.
B. Helps downstream personnel, such as implementation and delivery, to have a clearer
understanding of the requirements.
C. Using workflow profile enables sales to take this information to EMC consulting for review to
validate the configuration.
D. Using the WPA tool will give you the best "big picture" to see things such as block size, de-dupe,
file size and volumes.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following is the practice of sending unwanted e-mail messages, frequently with
commercial content, in large quantities to an indiscriminate set of recipients? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. E-mail spam
B. Junk mail
C. Email spoofing
D. Email jamming
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to
detect port scans and other suspicious traffic?
A. Nmap
B. Hping
C. NetRanger
D. PSAD
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a protocol that describes an approach to providing "streamlined" support of
OSI application services on top of TCP/IP-based networks for some constrained environments?
A. Network News Transfer Protocol
B. Lightweight Presentation Protocol
C. Internet Relay Chat Protocol
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are an Administrator for a network at an investment bank. You are concerned about individuals
breeching your network and being able to steal data before you can detect their presence and shut down
their access. Which of the following is the best way to address this issue?
A. Implement a strong password policy.
B. Implement a strong firewall.
C. Implement a honey pot.
D. Implement network based anti virus.
Answer: C

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NO.5 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using a tool to crack the wireless encryption keys. The description of
the tool is as follows:
Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. PsPasswd
B. Kismet
C. AirSnort
D. Cain
Answer: C

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The ____________________risk analysis process analyzes
the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value.
Answer: quantitative

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the terms to match with their descriptions.?
Answer:

NO.8 John works as a C programmer. He develops the following C program:
#include <stdlib.h>
#include <stdio.h>
#include <string.h>
int buffer(char *str) {
char buffer1[10];
strcpy(buffer1, str);
return 1;
}
int main(int argc, char *argv[]) {
buffer (argv[1]);
printf("Executed\n");
return 1;
}
His program is vulnerable to a __________ attack.
A. SQL injection
B. Denial-of-Service
C. Buffer overflow
D. Cross site scripting
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following types of VPN uses the Internet as its main backbone, allowing users, customers,
and branch offices to access corporate network resources across various network architectures?
A. PPTP VPN
B. Remote access VPN
C. Extranet-based VPN
D. Intranet-based VPN
Answer: C

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NO.10 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The _____________is an application layer protocol that is used
between workstations and routers for transporting SNA/NetBIOS traffic over TCP sessions.
Answer: DCAP

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NO.11 Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log
traffic passing over a digital network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. Wireless sniffer
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Performance Monitor
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which of the following is an intrusion detection system that monitors and analyzes the internals of a
computing system rather than the network packets on its external interfaces?
A. IPS
B. HIDS
C. DMZ
D. NIDS
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is designed to detect the unwanted presence of fire by monitoring
environmental changes associated with combustion?
A. Fire sprinkler
B. Fire suppression system
C. Fire alarm system
D. Gaseous fire suppression
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following protocols is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a
network of autonomous systems?
A. IGMP
B. ICMP
C. EGP
D. OSPF
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program
in the host that is sending the segment?
A. Sequence Number
B. Header Length
C. Acknowledgment Number
D. Source Port Address
Answer: D

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NO.16 In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The router does not have a configuration file.
B. There is a need to set operating parameters.
C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.
D. The router does not find a valid operating system image.
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Which of the following is a process that detects a problem, determines its cause, minimizes the
damages, resolves the problem, and documents each step of response for future reference?
A. Incident response
B. Incident handling
C. Incident management
D. Incident planning
Answer: A

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NO.18 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A _______________device is used for uniquely recognizing
humans based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits.
Answer: biometric

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NO.19 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ------------------------------- is the complete network configuration
and information toolkit that uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast
and efficient.
Answer: NetRanger

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NO.20 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________________ is typically carried out by a remote
attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it is not authorized or allowed.
Answer: Network reconnaissance

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NO.1 What steps should you perform to create a copy of a source LUN in a second storage array, while
minimizing unavailability of the source LUN?
A. use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN, then take a snapshot on the second storage array
B. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the snapshot to the second storage
array
C. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN to the second storage
array
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, run MirrorView to mirror the snapshot to the second array, then
use SAN Copy to synchronize the mirror with the source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.2 How are the LUNs for the Write Intent Log (WIL) configured?
A. WIL LUNs are configured automatically.
B. After manually binding the LUNs, the WIL is automatically configured.
C. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on a per-array basis.
D. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on one array. The WIL is then automatically
replicated to the other array.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two states can a clone LUN be in before it can be fractured? (Choose two.)
A. consistent
B. synchronizing
C. synchronized
D. reverse out-of-sync
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which three statements are correct about clones? (Choose three.)
A. Clones can be copied using SAN Copy to a remote storage array.
B. Clones typically consume about 20% of the size of the source LUN.
C. Fractured clones can later be synchronized with the source LUN to update the contents.
D. Clones can be fractured from the source LUN, then mounted to a secondary host and accessed just
like another LUN.
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 You have a source LUN on a CX500 for which you maintain snapshots for tape backup. You need to
create a new snapshot for this source LUN but are unable to do so. You can create snapshots of other
source LUNs on the array. What is the most likely problem?
A. You have reached the maximum limit of 50 Cache LUNs.
B. You have reached the maximum limit of 8 snapshots per source LUN.
C. You have reached the maximum limit of 150 snapshots per storage system.
D. You have reached the maximum limit of 300 snapshots per storage system.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to implement site level disaster recovery. Which two are valid options to consider? (Choose
two.)
A. Use SAN Copy to copy LUNs from the primary site to the recovery site.
B. Use SAN Copy to mirror a LUN from the primary site to the recovery site.
C. Use MirrorView to mirror LUNs from the primary site to another local array.
D. Use SnapView to create a clone, then use SAN Copy to copy the clone to the recovery site.
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which three operations are possible using clones? (Choose three.)
A. Up to eight clones can be made from a single source LUN.
B. While a clone is fractured, it can be connected to a host for use.
C. A fractured clone can be accessed for read and write operations.
D. A snapshot of a clone must be reverse synchronized prior to mounting.
E. A live clone can be mounted by a secondary host to use as a standard LUN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. naviadm
B. admhost
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which three statements are correct about SAN Copy? (Choose three.)
A. SAN Copy can be installed on any model CX array.
B. SAN Copy is a storage array-based Data Mover application.
C. SAN Copy transfers data over a Fibre Channel SAN, as opposed to an IP LAN.
D. SAN Copy sessions can be managed either by Navisphere Manager or by CLI.
Answer: BCD

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NO.10 SAN Copy sessions offer which three capabilities? (Choose three.)
A. providing content push or pull capability
B. offloading Storage Array processing onto hosts
C. migrating data from older arrays to newer arrays in the same SAN fabric
D. distributing and collecting content between the central location and branch offices
Answer: ACD

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NO.11 How many LUNs are required for the Clone Private LUN?
A. one per SP
B. one per clone
C. one per clone group
D. one per storage system
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which four LUN characteristics can be displayed in Navisphere Analyzer? (Choose four.)
A. Bytes Tx / Rx
B. Utilization (%)
C. Capacity (GB)
D. Response Time (ms)
E. Total Bandwidth (MB/sec.)
F. Total Throughput (I/O /sec.)
Answer: BDEF

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NO.13 You have installed SAN Copy. Which statement is true?
A. The storage array must be rebooted.
B. SAN Copy cannot be upgraded, except by a complete re-install.
C. Any LUN within the SAN is automatically made available to be copied.
D. The admhost utility must be installed on each storage array that Navisphere Manager resides on.
E. SAN Copy sessions can be managed through the Navisphere Manager Enterprise Storage window.
Answer: E

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NO.14 You are concerned that the loss of an SP might cause you to lose all of your existing snapshot
sessions. What should you do to prevent losing existing snapshot sessions?
A. add a UPS to the storage array
B. use PowerPath to gain failover support
C. select the Persistent mode when starting a snapshot session
D. Nothing, the Vaulting process automatically saves all snapshots to disk in the PSM LUN.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are connecting a CX700 to a CX500 through a fabric for Mirrorview. Which two zones must be
completed? (Choose two.)
A. Port 1 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the
CX500.
B. Port 1 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the
CX500.
C. Port 3 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the
CX500.
D. Port 3 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the
CX500.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which two tasks can Navisphere Analyzer perform? (Choose two.)
A. comparing archived and real-time performance data
B. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC switches
C. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC storage arrays
D. tracking performance trends for hosts connected to Dell / EMC Storage Area Networks (SANs)
Answer: AC

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NO.17 Which two are examples of how SnapView can be used in conjunction with MirrorView? (Choose two.)
A. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror for use at the remote site.
B. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then back up the snapshot to tape.
C. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the primary mirror and then mirror the snapshot to the
remote site.
D. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then clone the snapshot for use at
the primary site.
Answer: AB

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NO.18 You want User1 to have Administrator access to storage system A that is located in a branch office.
However, you want User1 to have read-only access to the remaining storage systems within the domain.
Which scenario best accomplishes this task?
A. User accounts must be either global or local because the user inherits the most restrictive role
assigned to the user.
B. Create a local account with Administrator access on storage system A, then create a global account for
User1 with Monitor access.
C. Create a global account with Monitor access on storage system A, then modify the account policy to
allow User1 to administer only storage system A.
D. Create a global account with Monitor access on the master node, then have User1 log in to storage
system A using the local default manager account.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
B. Snapshots may be created using the admhost CLI utility.
C. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
D. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
E. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.20 Which statement best describes bi-directional mirroring as implemented by MirrorView ?
A. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system can be configured as the primary for one
mirror and a secondary for another mirror.
B. By utilizing two storage systems and one tape drive, the two storage systems are configured as a
primary and the secondary is backed up to tape.
C. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system is configured as the primary and the other
storage system is configured as the secondary.
D. By utilizing three storage systems, the two storage systems are configured as a primary and the third
storage system is configured as a secondary that is used to store the primary images.
Answer: A

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NO.1 When a WLAN controller transmits an Ethernet frame that has an IEEE 802.11 frame as its payload to a
lightweight AP, what type of QoS marks can be applied to the Ethernet frame and/or its payload? (Choose
3)
A. IEEE 802.1Q PCP marks in the Ethernet frame header
B. User Priority marks in the IEEE 802.11 frame header
C. Throughput subscription marks in the Ethernet frame header
D. MPLS tags from the Label Edge Router (LER)
E. DSCP marks to the ToS bits in the encapsulating IP packet header
F. RSVP tag if RTP is the payload of the IEEE 802.11 frame
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Your customer location is equipped with DAS, originally deployed to relay a GSM signal indoors and
provide 802.11 data coverage to static stations. What type of wireless application would be least likely to
be supported by this RF distribution model?
A. On-demand video streaming over wireless
B. Data connection with frequent roaming
C. Location-based services for wireless assets or RFID tags
D. VoWLAN if the codec is G.729.
E. FTP over implicit TLS/SSL
Answer: C

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NO.3 Given: Use Exhibit 1, 2, and 3 to answer the question.
The azimuth and elevation charts for which type of antenna are shown in Exhibit 1?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
E. Figure 5
F. Figure 6
Answer: C

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NO.4 One of your customers plans on providing wireless coverage to a warehouse facility. After performing an
initial walkthrough, you collect the following information:
-The central part of the warehouse is between 400 and 600 feet (122 to 183 meters) from the warehouse
switches mounted on the walls.
-The warehouse map was provided by the customer and is displayed in the exhibit.
-The warehouse storage is composed of metallic racks with varying inventory levels and contents, from
electronics and plastic toys to food pallets and juice bottles.
-Workers need basic data coverage from their working location, and are not highly mobile. They usually
work from one single aisle, and their laptop is on a cart with wheels.
What would be your recommendation to provide coverage to the central area (indicated by a blue circle)
of the warehouse?
A. Equip workers laptops with a directional antenna and install APs less than 328 feet (100m) away from
the switch.
B. In this case, extend the cable length just beyond 328 feet (100 m) and position APs as close as
possible to the central area of the warehouse.
C. Position APs along the walls, and equip the APs with Yagi antennas to cover the central area.
D. Install APs for client access in the central area and use a mesh backhaul link to connect to the DS.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When deploying long-distance 802.11 bridge links (10 miles / 16 km), what parameter may be critical for
improving data flow by reducing retries caused by the long distances.?
A. The sequence control field value
B. The acknowledgement timeout threshold
C. The minimum transmit data rate value
D. The CTS-to-self threshold
E. The Beacon interval
F. The PHY parameter set field
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which definition correctly describes the local MAC
variation of the centralized WLAN architecture?
A. All MAC functions are performed by the AP. A minimal subset of network control is offloaded to the
WLAN controller along with management and monitoring functions.
B. PHY functions are performed directly by the AP. MAC functions are divided almost equally between the
WLAN controller and the AP, according to the time sensitivity of the feature or service.
C. The AP provides the RF termination point for the WLAN, but performs very few of the WLAN functions
or services. The WLAN controller performs all MAC functions and the AP is very simple and lightweight.
D. All RF-, data-, and control-related WLAN functions are performed by the AP. APs coordinate network
services with one another and are managed by a WNMS, so no WLAN controller is used in this
architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In a centralized WLAN architecture, what new problem may arise when you change the data forwarding
model from centralized to distributed? (Choose 2)
A. APs that were designed for a centralized forwarding model may not support all features in distributed
forwarding mode.
B. The Ethernet switch ports to which APs are connected may need to be reconfigured to support VLAN
tagging and QoS at the network edge.
C. All RRM controls will also need to be distributed to a master AP that acts as a channel and transmit
power arbiter for other APs in the ESS.
D. Centralized control functions, such as key management and distribution, RRM, and load balancing will
no longer be supported.
E. APs will not have the processing capabilities to support AES-CCMP, so TKIP will be the recommended
encryption method.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 In a manufacturing facility with highly reflective materials, you are planning an upgrade to your existing
802.11b solution. You have chosen a dual-band 802.11n infrastructure product for this purpose. Your
client applications include:
Handheld scanners
for inventory management
Toughbooks (laptops)
mounted on forklifts for inventory and workflow management
VoWiFi phones
used by select employees throughout the facility You are evaluating all of the 802.11n
enhancements and determining which features to enable for your environment and applications.
In this scenario, what 802.11n enhancements should NOT be enabled on the 2.4 GHz radio of the new
APs? (Choose 2)
A. 40 MHz channels
B. Short guard intervals
C. Block Acknowledgments
D. Frame aggregation
E. MRC
F. STBC
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 According to WLAN security design best practices, what is true of the EAP properties shown in the
exhibit?
A. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should be checked if you purchased a third-party SSL
certificate for the AS, but left unchecked if you have a self-signed certificate for the AS.
B. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should always be checked to prevent MITM attacks from
rogue authentication servers.
C. The Trusted Root Certification Authorities
list is provided to identify the certificate that the client
should send to the AS for client authentication.
D. The Do not prompt user to authorize new servers or trusted certification authorities
box should be
checked only for administrative users.
E. The Enable Identity Privacy
checkbox and anonymous name field are only useful for networks
supporting EAP-LEAP.
Answer: B

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NO.10 After surveying for the ideal mounting locations for APs, you have been asked to compromise RF
propagation optimization due to aesthetic concerns raised by your customer. In the end, you ve decided to
mount the APs in the ideal locations and paint the APs so they go unnoticed in the environment.
What is a valid recommendation or consideration when painting APs? (Choose 2)
A. Always use paints with metallic dye in them to prevent potential RF propagation impact.
B. Do not paint the notification LEDs on the AP, but configure them to be dim or turned off altogether until
troubleshooting is required.
C. Painting APs may void the product manufacturer s warranty.
D. Most AP models for indoor environments come in a variety of form factors and colors. Painting is never
recommended.
E. Painting APs always introduces a fire and gas emissions hazard and should be avoided for all indoor
APs.
Answer: B,C

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